Under the first section, which is aimed at the first truth of this quintet. "Total depravity," we find the following words:
The Bible teaches total depravity, and I believe in total depravity. But that simply means that there is nothing good in man to earn or deserve salvation. The Bible says in Jeremiah 17:9, "The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked."It seems that this gentleman believes scripturrally that man is born depraved. So where does the problem lie then, well it comes through in this next statement on whether Man capable or incapable of coming to God once his own will (otherwise know as 'totalinability') Here are this gentlemans words:
While the Bible teaches the depravity of the human race, it nowhere teaches total inability. The Bible never hints that people are lost because they have no ability to come to Christ. The language of Jesus was, "Ye will not come to me, that ye might have life" (John 5:40). Notice, it is not a matter of whether or not you can come to Christ; it is a matter of whether or not you will come to Christ. Jesus looked over Jerusalem and wept and said, "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem . . .how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not!" (Matt. 23:37). Here again notice, He did not say, "How often would I have gathered you together, but you could not." No. He said, "Ye would not!" It was not a matter of whether they could; it was a matter of whether they would. Revelation 22:17, the last invitation in the Bible, says, "And the Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely ."If it is true that no person has the ability to come to Christ, then why would Jesus say in John 5:40, "Ye will not come to me." why didn't He simply say, "You cannot come to me."?Now there is the claim that is an issue for all biblically reformed students and believers. He satate, "it nowhere teaches total inability" this is sheer nonsense, anyone that has the first clue about the biblical topic of the condition of man due to the fall; they will see that the first "depravity of human nature" ultimately leads to the 2nd "human inability."
This is followed by a straw man "the bible never hints that people are lost due to they have no ability to come to Christ." No calvinist has ever said this, not a single one. People are lost due to their rebellious and sinful hearts, their inability is the direct result of their rebellion again God.
Having this fact in mind, we can now consider the scriptural testimony to this truth: In John 6:44-45, 65 we have this great truth "No one can come to me unless the father draws him and I will raise upon the last day" "this is why I said that none can come to me unless it is granted of him by the father." The term "no one can" literally speak of no one is able... it speaks of an inability to do something. Man does not have the ability until it is given, granted, imparted to him by the father. In John 8:34 we read "truly truly I say to you, anyone who commits sin is a slave to sin" A clear reference to man's inability to do anything other than do that which is in his nature... Sin. earlier on in this section, he speaks of him being the one who set the person free through the continual abiding in the word. which he later say, the one who hears .... understands the word of God shows he is chosen of God, but the one who does not understand, is not of God but of the devil.
In Romans 3: 10 -11 we read: "None is righteous, no, not one; no one understands; no one seeks for God." This is a crucial point, that none has any way to come to God.. it literally say "no one is God seeker" Paul is rounding his whole argument that man is wretched and cannot please God .. he fail everythime. This point is picked later in this book by paul when we read these words in Chapter 8: 7-8: "For the mind that set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God's laws; indeed it cannot (lacks the ability). Those who are in the flesh (unregerate sinner) cannot (lack the ability) to please God." Here we see once again that man himself is incapable of choosing God and Christ.
In this we have seen that this gentlemen has severely misrepresented the bible at this point. Assuming that his tradition is in fact biblical when it is not. The bible is clear that sice man is depraved by nature, that automatical lead to the truth that he incapable of coming to christ being a slave to his depraved natureas John 8:34, and Romans 6: 15-17.
As for the scriptures given to support the idea that man can come to Christ, or have a free-will.. they do not teach such a thing. Firstly, the subjects being discussion in John 5, Matthew 23, Revelations 22:17 are not primarily dealing with salvation or the related aspect. The first being John 5 read as follows:
You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life. I do not receive glory from people. But I know that you do not have the love of God within you. I have come in my Father's name, and you do not receive me. If another comes in his own name, you will receive him. How can you believe, when you receive glory from one another and do not seek the glory that comes from the only God? Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father. There is one who accuses you: Moses, on whom you have set your hope. For if you believed Moses, you would believe me; for he wrote of me. But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe my words?”This passage does not teach "free-will" as it does not exist, it does not teach man can choose to come to Christ on his own inititive. It in fact, teaches something complete different. The Jews inability to even recognise their own messiah even after spending their life studying the scripture; they failed to recognise him. Here are the important words, "You search the scriptures because you think by them you will have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness ABOUT ME yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life." The text only explans the pysical rejection; it no where gives us the reason. their rejection was of course their choice, but it was due to their love of their sin and being passed over by God the father.
Now lets consider the second text that is offered in this article:
“O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to it! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you were not willing! See, your house is left to you desolate. For I tell you, you will not see me again, until you say, ‘Blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord.’”Here is one of the favourite proof texts of the arminian- freewillist; yet it has been for so long wrapped up in a false tradition and misapplication. We can know this by simply asking what is the subject of the passage. And when we do this, we learn that it is not a salvation text but a judgement text on the leader of israel and ultimate the people who follow after them.
And even considering the words, it is not a gathering of all people in the context of the jews but a particular limitation within. It sas "your children" meaning Christ would have loved to free this students from the grips of the teachers influence. It has nothing to do with salvation, but simply restoration of the lost and decieved followers
And it was the leaders who were becoming a stumbling-block to the people under their care. That is what is being implied by "but you were not willing." These spiritual phonies had blinded these people to who their messiah was by spreading many lies about him. We at this point need to consider verse 13 of this same section as it has a direct application, "Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for you shut the kingdom of heaven in peoples faces. For you neither enter yourselves nor allow those would enter to go in ."
No matter how one comes to this text, we can know if it is being handled in accurate fashion just by knowing that it is not directly dealing with salvation; but it is in fact a rebuke of the Pharisees and other for their continual rejection of the truth to which they had been stir people against by their falsehood. And this is the bottom line.
And last of all, we have the verse from the 22nd chapter of Revelation, which reads as follows:
The Spirit and the Bride say, “Come.” And let the one who hears say, “Come.” And let the one who is thirsty come; let the one who desires take the water of life without price.At this point I am not sure how this passage even refutes mans inabilty to come to Christ before he has been regenerated, which in John 3 say must take place in order for him to be welcomed in Heaven to start off with. And since revelation is given us the final summation of the redeemed believers jorney unto "glorification" which means that those who are told to 'to come" for these benefits, must have been previously chosen in Christ.. set part by the Spirit .... And love by the father due to what Christ done for them.
Therefore, it is only possible and logical that the ones who "desires to take the water of life," only do so, because they have been granted the ability to have such a desire by God through regeneration of the Spirit. Far from dispoving a biblical truth, it does not even touch it but only goes to show the unsoundness of the gentlemens thinking on this subject.
Here is the final point made by this gentlemen; in which he seeks to address a passage that we calvinist use to teach all the truth of the doctrines of grace:
Some Calvinists use John 6:44 in an effort to prove total inability. Here the Bible says, "No man can come to me except the Father which hath sent me draw him...."But the Bible makes it plain in John 12:32 that Christ will draw all men unto Himself. Here the Bible says, "And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me."So in attempt to deal with John 6:44; we see this gentleman barely touches it but does not even discuss it. He leaves as soon as he comes to it and goes straight to another verse instead.
All men are drawn to Christ, but not all men will trust Christ as Saviour. Every man will make his own decision to trust Christ or to reject Him. The Bible makes it clear that all men have light. John 1:9 says, "That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world." Romans 1:19,20 indicates that every sinner has been called through the creation about him. And Romans 2:11-16 indicates that sinners are called through their conscience, even when they have not heard the Word of God.
This is not sound reasoning and it not sound theology. I touch on John 6:44 beifly above; but seek not to touch again here as it is quite unrefutable .. it says literally .. "no one is able," what about john 12 then how are we to understand that passage; simple by allowing to speak for it's self:
Now among those who went up to worship at the feast were some Greeks. So these came to Philip, who was from Bethsaida in Galilee, and asked him, “Sir, we wish to see Jesus.” Philip went and told Andrew; Andrew and Philip went and told Jesus. And Jesus answered them, “The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified. Truly, truly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the earth and dies, it remains alone; but if it dies, it bears much fruit. Whoever loves his life loses it, and whoever hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal life. If anyone serves me, he must follow me; and where I am, there will my servant be also. If anyone serves me, the Father will honor him.If this man's assumption is correct that Jesus is saying that his atonement will draw all men (universalism) and not only draw those it was designed for the elect. Should not be able to find any statement saying the opposite is case. Well this is exactally what we find in John Gospel that Jesus did not come every single person. Notice the following verses for one .. John 2:23-25, 6:36-40, 60-66, 8: 39-47, 10: 25-30, 12 37-43, 17:9 all speak to the specificity of Christ's work. And even to this point, this text is not refuting total inability.
“Now is my soul troubled. And what shall I say? ‘Father, save me from this hour’? But for this purpose I have come to this hour. Father, glorify your name.” Then a voice came from heaven: “I have glorified it, and I will glorify it again.” The crowd that stood there and heard it said that it had thundered. Others said, “An angel has spoken to him.” Jesus answered, “This voice has come for your sake, not mine. Now is the judgment of this world; now will the ruler of this world be cast out. And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.” He said this to show by what kind of death he was going to die. So the crowd answered him, “We have heard from the Law that the Christ remains forever. How can you say that the Son of Man must be lifted up? Who is this Son of Man?” So Jesus said to them, “The light is among you for a little while longer. Walk while you have the light, lest darkness overtake you. The one who walks in the darkness does not know where he is going. While you have the light, believe in the light, that you may become sons of light.” (John 12:20-36)
So what is the point of this above passage: simply this Christ atonement was designed to atone for a real sinful group and merely a possiblity. Beyond this, the passage makes it clear that "all" is not referring to "everyone" but specific people of the Jews and gentile which are the all.
